mm-169 Given integer n>=1 let a(n) = number of non-congruent solutions ofx^3 + y^3 == 1 mod n .Is there a simple formula for a(n)? Given integer n>=1 let a(n) = number of non-congruent solutions of> x^3 + y^3 == 1 mod n .> Is there a simple formula for a(n) ?Theorem 2 of Section 3 of Chapter 8 of Ireland and Rosen, A Classical Introduction to Modern Number Theory: Suppose p is a prime, congruent to 1 mod 3. Then there are integers A and B such that 4p = A^2 + 27 B^2. If we require A congruent 1 mod 3, A is uniquely determined, and the number Daniel Grayson, dan@math.uiuc.edu, moderator for sci.math.research =>Given integer n>=1 let a(n) = number of non-congruent solutions of>x^3 + y^3 == 1 mod n .>Is there a simple formula for a(n) ?This is sequence A087412 in the On-line Encyclopedia of Integer Sequences. No formulafor it is given there. Note however that if phi(n) is not divisible by 3, the map x -> x^3 is 1-1 and onto on Z_n, so in that case a(n) = n. Also, a(n) is a multiplicative function, i.e. a(mn) = a(m) a(n) if m and n arerelatively prime.Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.caDepartment of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of Grayson, dan@math.uiuc.edu, moderator for sci.math.research =>Given integer n>=1 let a(n) = number of non-congruent solutions of>x^3 + y^3 == 1 mod n .>Is there a simple formula for a(n) ?> This is sequence A087412 in the On-line Encyclopedia of Integer Sequences> . No formula> for it is given there. Note however that if phi(n) is not divisible by 3, > the map x -> x^3 is 1-1 and onto on Z_n, so in that case a(n) = n. Oops: of course it's not true that x -> x^3 is 1-1 and onto onZ_n. It's 1-1 and onto on the group G(n) of members of Z_n relatively prime to n. Nevertheless, I believe it is still true that a(n) = n if phi(n) isnot divisible by 3. Moreover (from numerical evidence) it looks likea(p^k) = p^(k-1) a(p) for any prime p <> 3 and positive integer k, while a(3^k) = 3^(k-2) a(9) for k >= 2.Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.caDepartment of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2 =Your conjectural formula a(p^k) = p^(k-1) a(p) for any prime p <> 3 and positive integer kis correct. This follows from Hensel's lemma, since the equationx^3+y^3=1 is non-singular modulo p, except for p=3. Your formula whenp=3 is also 'ne; Hensel's lemma says that even if the equation issingular, you simply need to start with some higher power congruence,depending on how bad the singularity is.In general, if a(f,n) denotes the number of solutions to f(x,y)=0,where f(x,y) is a polynomial with integer coef'cients, then a(f,p^k) = p^{k-1}a(f,p) provided the curve is nonsingular, or what comes to the same thing,provided f, df/dx, and df/dy do not have a simultaneous root in thealgebraic closure of Z/pZ. In the present instance, f = x^3+y^3-1, df/dx = 3x^2, df/dy = 3y^2,so it's clear there is no simultaneous solution unless p = 3.Suppose now that phi(n) is not divisible by 3. Since both phi(n) anda(n) are multiplicative (Chinese remainder theorem), it suf'ces toprove that a(n) = n when n is a power of a prime, say n = p^k.Further, from the formula above, unless p = 3, it's enough to check itfor n = p. But phi(p) = p-1, so it suf'ces to check it when p-1 isnot divisible by 3. In other words, it needs to be checked when p = 2(mod 3), and you already noted that it is true in that case sinceevery element of Z/pZ is a cube.That leaves the case p=3 to check. But if n = 3^k with k > 1, thenphi(n) is divisible by 3. So we're left to check that a(3) = 3, andthe solutions mod 3 are (1,0), (0,1), (2,2). That completes the proofthat a(n) = n when phi(n) != 0 (mod 3).Finally, to get back to the question of the value of a(p), the hardcase is p = 1 (mod 3). In that case, there are formulas for a(p) usingcubic residue symbols (see, e.g., Ireland-Rosen's book on numbertheory). More importantly, if you build all of the a(p) values into anL-series, it turns out that the L-series factors as a product of twoHecke L-series. This is a particular case of the theory of complexmultiplication of elliptic curves.JHS>Given integer n>=1 let a(n) = number of non-congruent solutions of>x^3 + y^3 == 1 mod n .>Is there a simple formula for a(n) ? This is sequence A087412 in the On-line Encyclopedia of Integer Sequences> . No formula> for it is given there. Note however that if phi(n) is not divisible by 3, > the map x -> x^3 is 1-1 and onto on Z_n, so in that case a(n) = n. > Oops: of course it's not true that x -> x^3 is 1-1 and onto on> Z_n. It's 1-1 and onto on the group G(n) of members of Z_n relatively prime > to n. Nevertheless, I believe it is still true that a(n) = n if phi(n) is> not divisible by 3. Moreover (from numerical evidence) it looks like> a(p^k) = p^(k-1) a(p) for any prime p <> 3 and positive integer k, while > a(3^k) = 3^(k-2) a(9) for k >= 2.> Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.ca> Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel > University of moderator for sci.math.research =[A complimentary Cc of this posting was sent toLaurent Demanet > Consider the eigenvalue problem A R = R Lambda, where A is a n-by-n > matrix of operators acting on functions.Forget about functions; simplify the stuff, and assume that entries inA are m x m matrices.> We seek eigenvectors R_i and eigenvalues lambda_i that are> themselves operators.Not clear what you mean. Should R be an n-vector with entries beingoperators? Then, essentially, you want to solve A R = R Lambdawith A being a given nm x nm matrix, R being an unknown nm x m matrix,and lambda being an unknown m x m matrix? Then the problem reduces to'nding m-dimensional invariant subspaces of A - which is easy if youknow diagonalization (or the Jordan form) of A.[The answer is essentially the same in in'nite-dimensional case - youshould look for closed invariant subspaces of in'nite dimension andcodimension.]I know some other interpretations of your question - and they havedifferent answers...Hope this helps,Ilya Not clear what you mean. Should R be an n-vector with entries being> operators? Then, essentially, you want to solve> A R = R Lambda> with A being a given nm x nm matrix, R being an unknown nm x m matrix,> and lambda being an unknown m x m matrix? Then the problem reduces to> 'nding m-dimensional invariant subspaces of A - which is easy if you> know diagonalization (or the Jordan form) of A.> [The answer is essentially the same in in'nite-dimensional case - you> should look for closed invariant subspaces of in'nite dimension and> codimension.]the full diagonalization is a particular instance of an incomplete one. There are plenty of ways to identify any number of in'nite-dimensional subspaces from the spectral representation of A. My question was poorly phrased. What I had in mind were examples like the following one :(A f)(x) = (0, d/dx (c(x)*f(x)) ; - c(x)*d/dx (f(x)) , 0),which can be diagonalized as A R_pm = R_pm Lambda_pm withLambda_pm^2 f = -c d^2/dx^2 (c*f),take the 2 square roots (say |log c| is bounded and smooth), andR_pm f = ( d/dx (c*f) , Lambda_pm f ).I was wondering if this particular construction was part of a broader calculus. I think it's called a one-way wave'eld decomposition.> I know some other interpretations of your question - and they have> for sci.math.research =The following paper has been published:Algebraic and Geometric TopologyURL:http://www.maths.warwick.ac.uk/agt/AGTVol3/agt-3- 38.abs.htmlTitle:Addendum to Coarse homology theoriesAuthor(s):Paul D. MitchenerAbstract:theories Numbers. Primary: 55N35, 55N40Secondary: 19K56, 46L85Keywords:Coarse geometry, exotic homology, coarse Baum-Connes conjecture, Novikov conjectureReceived: 12 September 2002Author(s) address(es):Institut fuer Mathematik, Universitaet GoettingenD-37083 Goettingen, GermanyURL: dan@math.uiuc.edu, moderator for sci.math.research =>Given is a cube in R^K> Q = { x is element of R^K | 0 <= x <= 1 }>and a linear map> A : R^K -> R^2.>The image of the cube A(Q) is a convex polyhedron which can be described by>a system of linear inequalities> A(Q) = { y is element of R^2 | B*y <= C }>with a (m,2)-matrix B and a (m,1)-vector C.>The problem is to 'nd (m,B,C) as a function of the linear map A.Let A_n be the image of {y in Q: y_j = 0 for j > n}. So each A_n is a convex polygon, A_2 being a (possibly degenerate) parallelogram,and A_{n+1} is the convex hull of A_n and its translate by A(e_{n+1})where e_n is the vector in R^K with 1 in position n and 0 elsewhere.Going from A_n to A_{n+1} is easy: for each segment s of the boundary of A_n where the dot product of A(e_{n+1}) and the outward-pointing normal to s is negative, you take s; for each segment s where the dot product is positive you take s + A(e_{n+1});and for the two points p where the dot product changes sign youtake segments p to p + A(e_{n+1}).(Modify this slightly to take care of the case where a dot product is 0)Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.caDepartment of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2 =Informal Inductive reasoning seems to imply the image in R^2 has 2kcorners (or less).1) Is this true?2) Is there a similar formula for R^3?3) For what more general class of 'gures than a k-cube does thishold?FIRST name on the list (No.1) along with a note in the NOTE