mm-3169 ==== If n has the form: n = (p^x)k + 1, and n = n1*n2 What form must n1 and n2 each have? what do you mean by for? you could equate the two expressions since n equals n1*n2 and it also equals kp^x+1 but what does that solve fo you, are looking for dinmensions? Jay Subject: Re: Quick Math Guide to core error issues A literate person, I see. The Dower House, Lakey Hill actually. http://www.south-borsetshire-hunt.org.uk/officials.html Subject: Collatz Conjecture Community Web Site I have the site back online after the move. I went ahead and snagged a proper URL for the site. endevor. The new URL - www.collatzconjecture.com -or- collatzconjecture.com ------------------------------ I have been interested in this problem for many years and have noticed a need, or at least a desire on my part, for a community type website dedicated to this problem. So, I created one. This site serves these features; 1. A Links page for you to post pages about this problem with the ability to rate the pages for their usefulness. 2. A discussion board for a focused discussion on this problem. 3. A Books review section to suggest published material to assist with the topics related to this problem. 4. An events announcement page, where events can be put forward to a targeted community of people interested in this problem. 5. A simple image gallery for images of interest about this problem. 6. A downloads section where users can get a central listing of PDF, Mathematica Notebooks, Maple Files, etc.. all related to this problem. This site is brand new, but should be fairly stable, though slow for a while until I find a good site to host it. I would be interested in anyone who would like to be a moderator to keep the site clean and targeted and assist with the sites overall design and content. Please check it out. You can comment directly to me at the link on the site in the header. I think a site like this would serve as a needed gathering place for any and all individuals interested in the Collatz Conjecture. The url is a bit odd as I am borrowing one I currently have and am not using. If you have a suggestion for the url, please let me know. The URL is: (it was for my mother, who does not really care to do anything with it :) Subject: Re: Antipodal Points and S^1 is continuous then there are x, y such that f(x)=f(y) and d(x,y) is maximum? Subject: Re: Factorial/Exponential Identity, Infinity No, it's not. Considering the unit interval, if some subset of those points has a measure of one half, then, half of the points on the unit interval are elements of the subset. Consider for example half the unit interval. A problem with measure is that it says that many sets that are proper subsets and infinitely proper subsets of the unit interval's points have measure equal to one, in the above sense implying that all the elements of the set are elements of the proper subset, which would be a contradiction in terms, which is why it is necessarily not defined that way. Borel said that almost all of the elements of reals are absolutely normal, it's been shown that uncountably many elements of the reals are abnormal, not normal. I believe that this also applies to finite intervals in the reals. So we consider the unit interval, and a characteristic of it is that almost all of the elements are absolutely normal. To be absolutely normal the number has equal zero and one density in its binary representation for it to be normal to base two, four, eight, etcetera. There are further conditions upon it but that is a necessary condition. We evaluated the combinatoric expression of how many sequences have equal numbers of zeros and ones and it evaluates to an asymptotic expression of 1/sqrt(n) ~ 0. I wouldn't call that almost all real numbers, but then again as I've made clear my thought was that about half of the sequences would be of that form. So we have two in a way opposing statements: 1. Almost all of the real numbers are normal 2. Almost none of the real numbers are normal Simlarly: 1. Almost all of the real numbers have equal zero- and one-densities. 2. Almost none of the real numbers have equal zero- and one-densities. There are those and my unfounded assumption: 3. Half of the real numbers have equal zero- and one-densities. A key element of that logical parallel is that a normal number has equal zero- and one-densities. Grams and meters are SI units of mass and length. A gram is based upon the mass of a standard bar in France, or as well a mole of H^1. A meter is based upon the distance traveled by an unladen photon cesium atom, ie, the unit of length is a unit derived from standardly recognized velocity and time. Then here we are talking about how many elements of an infinite binary sequence, in terms of an asymptotic value that in terms of ever increasing finite lengths that are not infinite, the variable n, how many of those sequences exhibit certain characteristics. Borel says one thing about that, combinatorics says another about that. I suggest another. About irrationals, an irrational is plainly a number that can not be represented as the ratio of two integers. That's its definition. About the convergence, it reminds me of the discussion of the method to preserve the density of a canonical sequence: preserve the density in any finite sequence. There are a lot of rational numbers. Ross Subject: Re: Factorial/Exponential Identity, Infinity But no rational Ross's? Subject: Re: Factorial/Exponential Identity, Infinity Is there any parsing of this paragraph that makes any kind of sense? Subject: Re: Factorial/Exponential Identity, Infinity Yes, there is, that sentence is readable, although I admit it was somewhat of a task to finish after I started writing it. Virgil, y'all, what I'm trying to understand here is whether there is a discrepancy between almost all reals being normal and binary sequences with densities of one half being very few. Generally this is considering something like this: very few half almost all Combinatorics has there being very few sequences with equal densities. very few Borel in his statement about normal numbers says almost all sequences have equal densities. almost all ____________________________________ What's the deal with that? That last bit there is to deter Ullrich. How does one result say one thing and another another? Can't they all just get along? Well anyways, let's suppose we resolve this. Then I want to know this: why can I replace k with n/2 in the binomial coefficient in the large, but not z with n/2 in the Gamma function? Then I want you to tell me if there are rational functions g(n, x) s.t. (sum n)^x- sum (n^x) / g(n, x) = s(n+1, n-x+1), besides for x=0, sum(n^n)-(sum n)^n ) / n!^2 = 1, and that I found another asymptotic expression for n!, if you would. Let's suppose we don't resolve this. How is it resolved? It's OK for you to say something like that's kind of strange, what do you think? Preferred is here is an avenue to approach this cognitive impasse, or even there is no reason to cause confusion and dilemna, please sweep this under the rug and stop talking about it, as that would be humorous. I think that some large cardinals would be in different order based on their discovery dates. I read about A-D-E on one of Sarfatti's sci.math posts, it is talk about lattices, I read Conway and Sloane's sphere packing book, about Euclidean n-spheres in Euclidean n-d, many of the highest densities of packings and converings occur on those lattices, and the laminated lattices, including the Leech lattice, Lambda_24. This is about something else, it's about the set of all sets that do not contain themselves. It doesn't exist. What are two sets codense in the reals with equal density in the reals? Ross Subject: Re: Factorial/Exponential Identity, Infinity I can read it, but I can't parse it in any way that makes any kind of sense. Subject: Re: Sign of F(t) , 1=<1